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TMX1
New Contributor

WAN1 with 2 public IP' s

Hello, I have 2 public static IP' s allocated from my ISP. IP #1 is used by WAN1 and the rest of my internal network is NATted behind WAN1. (all works great) What I need to do is basically use public IP #2 for an Edge Server which happens to be a virtual machine under the existing ESX server. My problem is that I don' t know what to do so that specific VM will use that public IP directly. I was thinking " maybe" I would need to enable another VDOM with Transparent mode enabled? I really don' t know how to tackle this right now so any advice will be appreciated. Thanks
2 REPLIES 2
ede_pfau
Esteemed Contributor III

Hi, if you create a VIP with the second public IP as ' external IP' on the WAN1 interface, your FGT will respond to both public IPs. The ' mapped IP' would point to the (internal) IP of your server. If you absolutely have to assign the second public IP directly to the server then using a transparent VDOM would be a way to do it. I hope you can avoid the effort though.

Ede

"Kernel panic: Aiee, killing interrupt handler!"
Ede"Kernel panic: Aiee, killing interrupt handler!"
jtfinley
Contributor

Just create a VIP like EDE suggestion and add a FW-Policy from WAN->Internal using the Destination-Source of the VIP.
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