Hi
I have a WAN connection from My ISP and /30 network and we have our own /29 subnet. I have divided the /29 subnet into two networks. one is used to connect a physical device and second network's IPs are used a Virtual ips bound to WAN interface from where they NAt to dmz.
My question is how can I advertise my /29 subnet to my ISP when I don't have anything physically connected on my second network (all host ip are used as Virtual IP)
Hope someone will be able to help me ??
Regards
Nominating a forum post submits a request to create a new Knowledge Article based on the forum post topic. Please ensure your nomination includes a solution within the reply.
Do you have BGP configured at all at this point? Is it accepting and sending any routes?
Do you have a drawing of what you are trying to do? and what is where (vips, /29's, etc)
BGP you can redistribute connected, statics, etc so you have some options on how you want to approach it.
Mike Pruett
Hello,
I have the same problem.
BGP is working as long as I advertise interfaces with hosts directly connected to it. But when I set up a virtual IP for that IP, it won't advertise the network containing that virtual IP. (That network is not used to anything more than acting as a pool of virtual IPs.)
How can this be solved?
Hello,
By default, BGP check that the network you announce are in the routing table.
so, you can either:
* enter a static route for this networkin the routing table,
or
* under 'config router bgp', set the network-import-check disable
Best regards
Benoit
Ok thanks it worked fine disabling the network-import-check. :)
Hi Guys,
Maybe you can help me out. I have a similar setup and i am aware of the bgp necessity to have the network in the routing table. I've done that with a static route to blackhole my subnet.
My issue is with the reachability of the VIPs. I can't seem to reach my VI, i do see traffic in the firewall but it is hitting the local-in-policy and is denied.
I don't have an interface using any address of that public range and all is within one vdom. What am i overseeing?
Thanks in advance.
Do you have the VIP-object as destination address in the access policy?
NAT need to be enabled as well.
When I set this up I didn't use a blackhole at all. Advertising VIPs worked fine even if those IPs did not exist on any interface as long as I have disabled network-import-check.
Yes i have the VIP as destination in my access rule.
I disabled NAT though, because the VIP is the static NAT for this address.
If all is well you can use either the Blackhole static or the network-import-check disabled.
I'll try and switch that.
Thanks for your reply.
Select Forum Responses to become Knowledge Articles!
Select the “Nominate to Knowledge Base” button to recommend a forum post to become a knowledge article.
User | Count |
---|---|
1631 | |
1063 | |
749 | |
443 | |
210 |
The Fortinet Security Fabric brings together the concepts of convergence and consolidation to provide comprehensive cybersecurity protection for all users, devices, and applications and across all network edges.
Copyright 2024 Fortinet, Inc. All Rights Reserved.