Why does this work without asymmetric routing?
Hi,
we have two /29 IP blocks from our ISP. IPs from the first block are used for SNAT and a few VIPs. There are two default routes, one for each gateway because both subnets have different gateways. We didn't want ECMP, so we increased the distance for the default route to the gateway of block 2.
We also run VIPs on IPs of the second block. I was wondering why this is even working because the default route for block 2 is not installed in the routing table because of the higher distance. Therefore, return traffic for VIPs of block 2 must flow through the gateway of block 1. Asymmetric routing is disabled, I checked it.
We are also using port forwarding on the VIPs, so it shouldn't automatically use the VIP's public IP for return traffic.
Edit: I checked the session table and it looks like Fortigate SNATs the reply traffic. But I don't know why, the documentation says that it sould only be doing this when One-to-One NAT is applied without port-forwarding. Or does this rule only apply to traffic originating from the server behind the VIP and not reply traffic?
