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s_inderjit
s_inderjit
New Member
September 28, 2017
Question

Virtual IP and BGP routing

  • September 28, 2017
  • 1 reply
  • 14252 views

Hi

I have a WAN connection from My ISP and /30 network and we have our own /29 subnet. I have divided the /29 subnet into two networks. one is used to connect  a physical device and second network's IPs are used a Virtual ips bound to WAN interface from where they NAt to dmz.

 

My question is how can I advertise my /29 subnet to my ISP when I don't have anything physically connected on my second network (all host ip are used as Virtual IP)

 

Hope someone will be able to help me ??

 

Regards

 

 

    1 reply

    MikePruett
    MikePruett
    New Member
    October 12, 2017

    Do you have BGP configured at all at this point? Is it accepting and sending any routes?

    Do you have a drawing of what you are trying to do? and what is where (vips, /29's, etc)

     

    BGP you can redistribute connected, statics, etc so you have some options on how you want to approach it.

    orrsjo
    orrsjo
    New Member
    January 22, 2018

    Hello,

     

    I have the same problem.

    BGP is working as long as I advertise interfaces with hosts directly connected to it. But when I set up a virtual IP for that IP, it won't advertise the network containing that virtual IP. (That network is not used to anything more than acting as a pool of virtual IPs.)

    How can this be solved?

    Benoit_Rech_FTNT
    Staff
    Benoit_Rech_FTNT
    Staff
    January 22, 2018

    Hello,

    By default, BGP check that the network you announce are in the routing table.

    so, you can either:

    * enter a static route for this networkin the routing table,

    or 

    * under 'config router bgp', set the network-import-check disable

     

    Best regards

    Benoit

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