Question about IPsec's Phase Two Addressing
Points to ponder:
1.) I have successfully established a functional IPsec tunnel between a Fortigate 200E and a pfSense virtual machine.
2.) I noticed that in Phase 2, if I have the Fortigate's local address set to 0.0.0.0/0 and the pfsense's remote address set to 0.0.0.0/0, I understand that to mean all traffic from the pfsense end of the tunnel will now route through the Fortigate. With this, there's full connectivity and both networks can see each other's devices, no problem. Except the fact my boss doesn't want EVERYTHING coming from pfsense through the Fortigate.
3.) Now, if I change the 0.0.0.0 to reflect the Fortigate's LAN subnet on both ends, the pfSense now only routes packets destined for the Fortigate's network through the tunnel and routes all public traffic through it's own WAN interface. This fulfills my boss's wishes! But now the Fortigate has no detection of any devices on the pfSense LAN side. PfSense is the only side that can see through to the remote end of the tunnel.
Two Questions:
1.) Does anyone know why when Phase Two is set up to point #3's configuration, the Fortigate can now no longer see traffic coming in from the pfSense end of the IPsec tunnel, when it could when it was set up to point #2's standard? I would like to understand this better.
2.) Is there a static route or a forwarding rule that will still allow the Fortigate to see everything on the pfSense network even with point #3's setup?
