IPsec VPN behavior regarding IP addresses

Hi all, 

I'm relatively inexperienced with firewalls and would value any guidance you can provide.

Here's the scenario:
We're connected to another company via an IPSEC VPN. The VPN was set up correctly and is operational. However, due to a recent change, we need to revise the policy.
We have a label printer connected to a PC. This PC must be able to communicate with a remote server through the VPN. Currently, the PC can reach the remote server via the VPN. The problem is that the VPN's other side is receiving our public IP instead of the source PC's IP.

Here are the actions I've taken:
I've created two objects: one for the PC and another for the target server.
I've established a new policy rule that permits traffic from the PC object (set to 'Any' during the testing phase) to pass through the VPN tunnel, with NAT disabled for this rule.
I've also set up the reverse policy rule in case the target server needs to initiate contact with the PC.

However, when we test the application for the printer, the logs show that the target server responds to our public IP rather than the source PC's IP.
I suspect I'm overlooking something or there's some aspect of VPN behavior I'm not grasping. I would greatly appreciate any assistance or insights.

Thank you for any help